A previously “solicitous and loving” young undergoes “a classic onset of schizophrenia”, followed by “a changing regimen of antidepressants.” He is now in jail for murdering his father.
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Why does the author refer to her cousin as an untreated schizophrenic, when he was under the care of a psychiatrist and taking prescribed medication? She also notes the (shortened) lifetime of persistently chaotic behavior of her other diagnosed cousin, who was also in “treatment.” When is the public going to start connecting the dots?
